From 0c3868ea716cedccea53f566443516a228720e88 Mon Sep 17 00:00:00 2001 From: Ken Patmonk Date: Fri, 19 Jun 2026 02:43:26 -0500 Subject: [PATCH] quizzes: expand all 35 quizzes to 15 questions each MIME-Version: 1.0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=UTF-8 Content-Transfer-Encoding: 8bit OPS-1 through OPS-10, OS-2, OS-3 went from 5 → 15. OS-1, OS-4 through OS-11, SEC-1 through SEC-11, TRB-1 through TRB-4 went from 7 → 15. Questions cover exam-weight scenarios not duplicated from original content. Co-Authored-By: Claude Sonnet 4.6 --- quizzes/OPS-1-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OPS-10-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OPS-2-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OPS-3-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OPS-4-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OPS-5-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OPS-6-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OPS-7-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OPS-8-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OPS-9-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-1-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-10-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-11-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-2-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-3-quiz.md | 80 ++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-4-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-5-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-6-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-7-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-8-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/OS-9-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-1-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-10-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-11-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-2-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-3-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-4-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-5-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-6-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-7-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-8-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/SEC-9-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/TRB-1-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/TRB-2-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/TRB-3-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ quizzes/TRB-4-quiz.md | 64 +++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++++ 36 files changed, 2496 insertions(+) diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-1-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-1-quiz.md index 3ca9764..85221a9 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-1-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-1-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. A repeatable standard operating procedure C. A disk partition format D. A certificate warning +6. Which ticket field helps the help desk prioritize which issues to address first? + +A. Font style +B. Monitor size +C. Background color +D. Severity or priority level + +7. A problem keeps recurring. Which documentation action provides the best long-term value? + +A. Closing tickets without notes +B. Documenting the root cause and resolution in a knowledge base article +C. Avoiding follow-up +D. Deleting related tickets + +8. A technician escalates a ticket to Tier 2. What should the ticket contain? + +A. Only the device serial number +B. All prior troubleshooting steps and findings +C. Just the user's name +D. A random note + +9. What does a network diagram document? + +A. User email addresses +B. Password policies +C. The layout of devices and connections on the network +D. Browser history + +10. A device fails under warranty. Which process handles returning it to the vendor for replacement? + +A. RMA (Return Merchandise Authorization) +B. EULA +C. Chain of custody +D. SOP + +11. Why should tickets be updated in real time as troubleshooting progresses? + +A. To increase download speed +B. To provide accurate history if the ticket is escalated or reopened +C. To disable the SLA +D. To block knowledge base access + +12. Which term describes the formal process of reporting and tracking a major service disruption? + +A. Change request +B. Incident management +C. Asset tagging +D. Backup rotation + +13. A technician notices an unrelated problem while fixing another issue. What should they do? + +A. Fix both immediately without documentation +B. Ignore the unrelated problem +C. Document it and open a separate ticket per policy +D. Delete the original ticket + +14. Which document describes what IT will deliver, by when, and at what quality level? + +A. EULA +B. SLA +C. MSDS +D. Asset tag + +15. Which type of documentation maps a specific device to its owner, location, and purchase date? + +A. Knowledge base article +B. SOP +C. Inventory or asset record +D. Acceptable use policy + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -49,3 +119,13 @@ D. A certificate warning 3. A 4. D 5. B +6. D +7. B +8. B +9. C +10. A +11. B +12. B +13. C +14. B +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-10-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-10-quiz.md index 3d647fc..5c85b7d 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-10-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-10-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. Pasting sensitive customer data into an unapproved public AI tool C. Drafting a generic checklist D. Summarizing public documentation +6. A technician uses AI to generate a troubleshooting script for a customer system. What should be done before running it? + +A. Trust it and run immediately +B. Test in a non-production environment and review each step +C. Share it publicly for community feedback +D. Skip testing since AI is accurate + +7. Which term describes AI that creates new content such as text, images, or code based on training data patterns? + +A. Reactive AI +B. Rules-based AI +C. Generative AI +D. Symbolic AI + +8. An AI tool recommends a cost-saving measure. Why should a human review it before acting? + +A. AI recommendations are always wrong +B. AI lacks judgment about organizational values, ethics, and context +C. The recommendation will definitely violate the SLA +D. The AI may have produced the wrong file format + +9. Which practice best protects against AI hallucinations causing a production issue? + +A. Only use AI for creative writing +B. Always verify AI-generated technical steps against official documentation before implementing +C. Increase AI usage to reduce errors +D. Disable logging when using AI tools + +10. What information should NOT be entered into a public AI tool? + +A. General error messages +B. Public documentation links +C. Internal IP addresses, hostnames, credentials, or customer data +D. The type of cable being used + +11. What is a prompt in the context of AI tools? + +A. A command-line argument for a script +B. The input or instruction given to an AI model to generate a response +C. A type of firewall rule +D. A backup rotation schedule + +12. A technician notices an AI tool gives different answers to the same question each time. What does this suggest? + +A. The tool is malfunctioning and should be replaced +B. AI models can be non-deterministic and outputs should be verified +C. The technician needs to rephrase every question +D. The AI has been compromised + +13. Which action aligns with responsible AI use in a corporate IT environment? + +A. Using AI to process customer records without approval +B. Following company AI policy, avoiding sensitive data, and verifying outputs +C. Sharing AI outputs publicly to get feedback +D. Bypassing IT approval to install an AI tool + +14. What does AI "training data" refer to? + +A. The hardware specs of the AI server +B. The dataset the model learned patterns from during development +C. The user's prompt history +D. The AI company's employee handbook + +15. A technician uses AI to draft a reply to a customer. What is the most important step before sending? + +A. Send it immediately to save time +B. Review the reply for accuracy, tone, and sensitive data before sending +C. Ask the AI to resend it +D. Delete the conversation history first + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. A @@ -49,3 +119,13 @@ D. Summarizing public documentation 3. D 4. B 5. B +6. B +7. C +8. B +9. B +10. C +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. B +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-2-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-2-quiz.md index 19b0c1d..e6f178d 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-2-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-2-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. Document and review it according to policy C. Ignore user impact D. Disable ticketing +6. Who typically reviews and approves significant changes to production systems? + +A. A random end user +B. A change advisory board (CAB) +C. The printer technician +D. The asset tag department + +7. A change causes unexpected failures. What should the team execute immediately? + +A. Create a new SLA +B. Order new hardware +C. Execute the rollback plan +D. Disable all accounts + +8. What must be documented BEFORE implementing a change? + +A. The post-change menu +B. The scope, impact, risk, and rollback steps +C. The screen brightness setting +D. The toner color + +9. Which type of change bypasses the normal approval process due to urgency? + +A. Standard +B. Minor +C. Emergency +D. Scheduled + +10. A technician applies a patch without getting approval. What type of issue is this? + +A. Authorized standard change +B. Scheduled maintenance +C. Unauthorized change +D. SLA renewal + +11. Why is a maintenance window important for change management? + +A. It eliminates the need for documentation +B. It minimizes impact by scheduling changes during low-usage periods +C. It bypasses CAB review +D. It removes rollback requirements + +12. A change was completed successfully. What should happen next? + +A. Mark it as pending and leave it +B. Document the outcome and close the change request +C. Skip documentation +D. Delete all backup records + +13. What is the purpose of a change request form? + +A. To track personal leave +B. To document and justify the proposed change before implementation +C. To store printer settings +D. To replace the SLA + +14. A server update will require a restart. Who should be notified in advance? + +A. No one +B. Affected users and stakeholders +C. Only the senior manager +D. Asset inventory vendors only + +15. Which risk does poor change management most commonly introduce? + +A. Reduced ticket counts +B. Faster user response times +C. Unplanned outages and configuration drift +D. Lower licensing costs + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -49,3 +119,13 @@ D. Disable ticketing 3. A 4. D 5. B +6. B +7. C +8. B +9. C +10. C +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. B +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-3-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-3-quiz.md index 19371b2..775c5cf 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-3-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-3-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. Incremental C. Differential D. Manual only +6. A company backs up all data every Sunday (full) and changed files every other day. Which type are the daily backups? + +A. Full +B. Synthetic +C. Differential +D. Incremental + +7. Which backup strategy provides the fastest restore time but uses the most storage? + +A. Incremental only +B. Full backup each time +C. Differential chain +D. GFS + +8. What does GFS (Grandfather-Father-Son) backup rotation describe? + +A. A three-level hierarchy of daily, weekly, and monthly backups +B. A RAID configuration +C. A printer maintenance schedule +D. A driver signing policy + +9. Which backup media type is most commonly used for long-term archival due to low cost per GB? + +A. SSD +B. USB flash drive +C. Tape +D. RAM module + +10. A technician restores files from last night's backup, but the restored files are corrupted. What was missing from the backup strategy? + +A. A second monitor +B. Regular restore testing +C. An SSID +D. A change freeze + +11. What is the key difference between a backup and a snapshot? + +A. They are identical in every way +B. A snapshot captures system state at a point in time; a backup copies data to separate storage +C. Backups are always faster than snapshots +D. Snapshots replace the need for a 3-2-1 strategy + +12. A file server is restored from backup, but users report data missing from yesterday. What is the likely cause? + +A. The EULA expired +B. The backup did not run yesterday or did not include all folders +C. The SLA was updated +D. Asset tags were removed + +13. Why is offsite backup storage important? + +A. It reduces the need for asset tags +B. It protects data if the primary location is damaged or destroyed +C. It speeds up incremental backups +D. It disables the GFS rotation + +14. A restore requires last week's full backup plus differential backups. How many sets are needed? + +A. Just the full backup +B. The full backup plus all differential sets +C. The full backup plus only the most recent differential +D. Only the last differential set + +15. Which cloud backup benefit is most relevant to a small business with no dedicated IT staff? + +A. Higher power consumption +B. Reduced need to manage physical media and offsite transport +C. Longer restore times +D. Higher licensing costs + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -49,3 +119,13 @@ D. Manual only 3. A 4. D 5. B +6. D +7. B +8. A +9. C +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. C +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-4-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-4-quiz.md index 3eb8c2c..8d44a3c 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-4-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-4-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. To reduce trip hazards and improve organization C. To disable grounding D. To block ventilation +6. A technician needs to replace a laser printer's toner cartridge. Which safety step is most important? + +A. Wear an ESD wrist strap +B. Avoid inhaling toner and dispose of the cartridge properly +C. Connect to the network first +D. Remove the RAM first + +7. Which type of fire extinguisher is recommended for electrical equipment fires? + +A. Class A (water) +B. Class B (foam) +C. Class C (CO2 or dry chemical) +D. Class D (dry powder for metals) + +8. A technician works inside a tower with power disconnected. Why should they still ground themselves? + +A. To improve Wi-Fi signal +B. To prevent ESD damage from stored static on their body +C. To enable remote access +D. To update the BIOS + +9. Why should food and drinks be kept away from workstations during repair? + +A. To comply with font licensing +B. To prevent liquid damage and contamination of components +C. To reduce ticket volume +D. To satisfy the SLA + +10. A technician is disposing of a CRT monitor. Which hazard requires special handling? + +A. Low battery voltage +B. High-voltage capacitors that may hold a charge +C. Loud fan noise +D. Low display resolution + +11. Which environment poses the greatest ESD risk to components? + +A. High humidity +B. Low humidity and dry air +C. High temperature +D. High air pressure + +12. What is the correct first step when a technician encounters a chemical spill from a battery? + +A. Wipe it up without protection +B. Consult the SDS/MSDS and follow proper cleanup procedures +C. Store the device in a cabinet +D. Update the ticket and ignore it + +13. Why use a surge protector rather than just a power strip? + +A. To enable wireless connectivity +B. To protect equipment from voltage spikes that can damage components +C. To increase the number of USB ports +D. To reduce screen brightness + +14. When should a technician wear an ESD wrist strap? + +A. When replacing a toner cartridge +B. When cleaning a monitor +C. When handling RAM, CPUs, or other static-sensitive internal components +D. When updating software + +15. A technician needs to work on a computer in a static-prone environment. Which precaution is best? + +A. Wear rubber-soled shoes only +B. Use an ESD mat and wrist strap and avoid touching circuit board traces +C. Keep the power connected for grounding +D. Place components on a carpeted floor + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -49,3 +119,13 @@ D. To block ventilation 3. A 4. D 5. B +6. B +7. C +8. B +9. B +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. C +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-5-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-5-quiz.md index c328a0e..c8dd533 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-5-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-5-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. To improve password length C. To disable updates D. To remove asset tags +6. What is the primary function of a surge protector? + +A. Provide battery backup during outages +B. Protect equipment from voltage spikes +C. Regulate air temperature +D. Reduce toner waste + +7. Which environmental condition most commonly causes hard drive failure due to physical damage? + +A. Low humidity +B. High humidity +C. Excessive shock or vibration +D. Insufficient ventilation + +8. A server room temperature is consistently above recommended range. Which action best mitigates the risk? + +A. Add more servers to generate more heat +B. Ensure proper airflow with cold aisle/hot aisle arrangement and additional cooling +C. Reduce the number of UPS units +D. Disable ventilation + +9. What is the purpose of a UPS beyond just providing power during an outage? + +A. It speeds up the internet connection +B. It also conditions power to filter noise and spikes before they reach equipment +C. It replaces the need for surge protectors on other devices +D. It eliminates the need for a generator + +10. How should old ink cartridges be disposed of? + +A. Thrown in regular trash +B. Poured down a drain +C. Returned to manufacturer programs or recycled per local regulations +D. Incinerated + +11. Which device protects against both power outages AND voltage fluctuations, unlike a surge protector alone? + +A. Power strip +B. UPS +C. Smart plug +D. Ethernet switch + +12. A company is in a flood-prone area. Which data protection measure is most relevant? + +A. Lower the server room temperature +B. Store backups offsite in a higher elevation location +C. Add a UPS +D. Replace surge protectors + +13. A server room has poor airflow and hot air is recirculating into server intakes. Which layout improvement addresses this? + +A. Remove server rack doors +B. Implement hot aisle/cold aisle containment +C. Add more toner cartridges +D. Reduce lighting + +14. Which gas-based fire suppression system is preferred in server rooms because it does not damage equipment? + +A. Water sprinkler +B. Foam suppression +C. Clean agent (e.g., FM-200 or Halon replacement) +D. Dry powder + +15. Why should equipment not be placed in direct sunlight? + +A. It reduces browser performance +B. Heat and UV light can degrade components and shorten equipment life +C. It interferes with wireless signals +D. It increases humidity + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -49,4 +119,14 @@ D. To remove asset tags 3. C 4. D 5. A +6. B +7. C +8. B +9. B +10. C +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. C +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-6-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-6-quiz.md index c298a32..3297b58 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-6-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-6-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. It may still have license requirements C. It cannot be used by businesses D. It disables compliance +6. A technician finds company data on a personal device. What should happen first? + +A. Immediately wipe the device +B. Follow the AUP and report to the appropriate team per incident policy +C. Ignore it +D. Post a help-desk ticket with the data attached + +7. Which law type governs how personally identifiable information (PII) must be handled? + +A. Criminal law +B. Privacy regulation (e.g., GDPR, HIPAA, state privacy laws) +C. Zoning regulation +D. EULA + +8. Which license type allows unlimited installations across an organization for a flat fee? + +A. Per-seat +B. OEM +C. Enterprise or site license +D. Trial + +9. In digital forensics, what does the order of volatility principle mean? + +A. Collect the most permanent evidence first +B. Collect the most volatile evidence (RAM, running processes) before less volatile evidence +C. Always start with hard drive imaging +D. Only cloud evidence is valid + +10. A technician is asked to image a suspect drive. What must be used to preserve forensic integrity? + +A. A regular copy-paste operation +B. A write-blocker to prevent modifying the original +C. Disk Cleanup first +D. Delete temporary files before imaging + +11. Which describes a regulatory compliance issue for an IT technician? + +A. Using the wrong font in a ticket +B. Storing health data on an unencrypted laptop without authorization +C. Using two monitors +D. Setting a dark screen theme + +12. What does the phrase "right to be forgotten" refer to in privacy regulations? + +A. Deleting browser favorites +B. A user's right to request deletion of their personal data +C. Clearing event logs +D. Removing device drivers + +13. An employee uses company equipment to run a personal business after hours. Which policy does this violate? + +A. SLA +B. GFS rotation +C. Acceptable Use Policy (AUP) +D. 3-2-1 backup rule + +14. What is the purpose of a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) for IT staff? + +A. To define software licensing terms +B. To legally obligate them to keep sensitive company information confidential +C. To establish ticket escalation paths +D. To describe the chain of custody + +15. An organization discovers unauthorized software installed on a work PC. What is the first concern? + +A. Screen resolution +B. Licensing compliance and potential malware risk +C. Font settings +D. Display refresh rate + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. A @@ -49,4 +119,14 @@ D. It disables compliance 3. C 4. A 5. B +6. B +7. B +8. C +9. B +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. C +14. B +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-7-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-7-quiz.md index 7544647..9356a32 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-7-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-7-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. Dismissing or judging the user C. Follow-up D. Documentation +6. A user becomes frustrated and raises their voice. What is the best response? + +A. Raise your voice in return +B. Remain calm, let them finish, then address the issue professionally +C. Close the ticket immediately +D. Escalate to legal + +7. A technician is about to run a command that will reboot the user's machine. What should happen first? + +A. Run the command immediately +B. Warn the user and allow them to save their work +C. Close all tickets first +D. Update the SLA + +8. Which behavior demonstrates professionalism when a user reports a problem the technician cannot immediately solve? + +A. Making up an answer +B. Telling the user it is their fault +C. Honestly stating what is known, setting expectations, and following up +D. Ignoring the ticket + +9. A technician notices a user has personal files on a work device unrelated to the current issue. What should the technician do? + +A. Delete the files immediately +B. Access and review all personal files +C. Focus on the reported issue and handle any policy concerns through proper channels +D. Post about it in the team chat + +10. When should a technician avoid using technical jargon? + +A. When filing a detailed internal report +B. When communicating with a non-technical end user +C. When writing escalation notes +D. When documenting the ticket for Tier 2 + +11. A technician finishes a repair. What follow-up step demonstrates professionalism? + +A. Immediately leave without speaking to the user +B. Confirm the issue is resolved and ask if the user has any questions +C. Submit the ticket before verifying the fix +D. Avoid documenting the solution + +12. Which action best represents maintaining user confidentiality? + +A. Discussing a user's data issue with coworkers in public +B. Keeping user information private and sharing only with authorized personnel +C. Posting ticket details in a community forum +D. Leaving the user's screen visible to others + +13. A user calls back angry because their issue recurred after being marked resolved. What is the best response? + +A. Apologize and defend the original resolution +B. Apologize, reopen the ticket, and investigate thoroughly +C. Blame the user for causing the recurrence +D. Close the ticket again + +14. A technician is working on a VIP user's computer. How should they adjust their approach? + +A. Rush the job to impress the user +B. Treat the issue with the same professionalism and process as any other ticket +C. Skip documentation +D. Bypass approval requirements + +15. Which habit most improves long-term customer satisfaction in IT support? + +A. Responding without documentation +B. Consistent follow-through, honest communication, and documenting resolutions +C. Closing tickets quickly without verifying resolution +D. Avoiding callbacks + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. A @@ -49,4 +119,14 @@ D. Documentation 3. C 4. D 5. B +6. B +7. B +8. C +9. C +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. B +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-8-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-8-quiz.md index e30f46e..307eee4 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-8-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-8-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. Test and review the script C. Delete all backups D. Disable rollback +6. Which scripting language is built into Windows and designed specifically for system administration? + +A. Python +B. Bash +C. Ruby +D. PowerShell + +7. A technician writes a script that loops through a list of computers and installs an agent on each one. Which concept does this demonstrate? + +A. Manual installation +B. Automation through scripting +C. Physical deployment +D. Manual network mapping + +8. What is a variable in a script? + +A. A fixed hardware setting +B. A named storage location for a value used in the script +C. A type of network cable +D. A drive partition type + +9. A Bash script begins with `#!/bin/bash`. What is the purpose of this line? + +A. It comments out the first line +B. It specifies which interpreter should run the script +C. It encrypts the script +D. It sets the working directory + +10. A technician downloads a script from an untrusted website and runs it. What is the primary risk? + +A. The script may update drivers automatically +B. The script may execute malicious commands with the user's permissions +C. The script may slow internet speed slightly +D. The script may change the desktop background + +11. A PowerShell script fails with an execution policy error. What is the likely cause? + +A. The script has a syntax error +B. PowerShell execution policy is set to Restricted +C. The script file is on a network drive +D. The screen saver is active + +12. In a batch script, what does `echo off` do? + +A. Turns off the monitor +B. Suppresses the display of commands as they run +C. Deletes output files +D. Disables all error messages + +13. Which Windows environment variable stores the path to the current user's home folder? + +A. `%SYSTEMROOT%` +B. `%PATH%` +C. `%USERPROFILE%` +D. `%APPDATA%` + +14. A Bash script needs to run a command as root. Which prefix enables this? + +A. `run` +B. `admin` +C. `sudo` +D. `root` + +15. Which cmdlet in PowerShell retrieves information about running processes? + +A. `Get-Service` +B. `Get-EventLog` +C. `Get-Process` +D. `Get-Item` + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -49,4 +119,14 @@ D. Disable rollback 3. C 4. A 5. B +6. D +7. B +8. B +9. B +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. C +14. C +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/OPS-9-quiz.md b/quizzes/OPS-9-quiz.md index ebebcdc..6f78b82 100644 --- a/quizzes/OPS-9-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OPS-9-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. EULA C. RMM D. GFS +6. Which remote desktop protocol is built into Windows and transmits the desktop over port 3389? + +A. SSH +B. VNC +C. RDP +D. SFTP + +7. Which protocol should be avoided for remote command-line access because it transmits data in plaintext? + +A. SSH +B. SFTP +C. Telnet +D. HTTPS + +8. A technician is providing remote support and the user steps away. What should the technician do? + +A. Continue working unsupervised +B. Inform the user and wait or disconnect until they return +C. Access unrelated files +D. Change the user's password + +9. Which type of VPN connects an individual device to a corporate network over the internet? + +A. Site-to-site VPN +B. Client-to-site (remote access) VPN +C. Mesh VPN +D. Tunnel-only VPN + +10. Which RMM capability is most useful for IT teams managing many remote endpoints? + +A. Managing toner inventory +B. Remote monitoring, patch management, and scripted remediation +C. Printing to remote printers only +D. Managing physical access controls + +11. What is a risk of leaving RDP exposed to the internet without additional controls? + +A. Reduced file transfer speeds +B. Brute-force and credential-stuffing attacks against the exposed service +C. Increased local printer latency +D. Reduced UPS efficiency + +12. Which authentication improvement most reduces the risk of unauthorized remote access? + +A. Shorter passwords +B. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) +C. Disabling screen lock +D. Allowing guest accounts + +13. A technician finishes a remote desktop session. What security step should they take? + +A. Leave the session idle +B. Log off the session rather than just closing the window +C. Disable the NIC +D. Restart the remote machine + +14. Why should remote support sessions be logged and recorded? + +A. To increase bandwidth usage +B. To provide an audit trail for accountability and compliance +C. To reduce ticket priority +D. To replace the need for an SLA + +15. Which tool allows a technician to securely transfer files to/from a remote Linux server? + +A. Telnet +B. RDP +C. SCP or SFTP +D. FTP + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -49,3 +119,13 @@ D. GFS 3. C 4. D 5. C +6. C +7. C +8. B +9. B +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. B +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/OS-1-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-1-quiz.md index 1dcefcf..783ac58 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-1-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-1-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Services C. System Information D. Resource Monitor +8. Which Windows edition includes Hyper-V for running virtual machines? + +A. Windows Home +B. Windows SE +C. Windows IoT +D. Windows Pro + +9. Which command shows the current computer name? + +A. `whoami` +B. `hostname` +C. `winver` +D. `msinfo32` + +10. What is the minimum RAM for a 64-bit Windows 11 installation? + +A. 256 MB +B. 512 MB +C. 4 GB +D. 16 GB + +11. Which command lists all running processes with their process IDs? + +A. `netstat` +B. `tasklist` +C. `gpupdate` +D. `diskpart` + +12. A technician needs to verify if a PC is 32-bit or 64-bit before installing software. Which tool provides this? + +A. Disk Cleanup +B. File Explorer Options +C. System Information or Settings > System > About +D. Windows Update only + +13. Which command shows detailed Group Policy results and user/computer settings? + +A. `hostname` +B. `winver` +C. `gpresult /r` +D. `chkdsk` + +14. Which Windows edition is sold only through OEM channels and is tied to the hardware it ships on? + +A. Enterprise +B. Pro +C. Home (OEM) +D. Education + +15. Which command shows current IP configuration including IPv4 address and subnet mask? + +A. `ping 127.0.0.1` +B. `ipconfig` +C. `hostname` +D. `tracert` + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,3 +121,11 @@ D. Resource Monitor 5. B 6. D 7. C +8. D +9. B +10. C +11. B +12. C +13. C +14. C +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/OS-10-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-10-quiz.md index bc72775..860a8f7 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-10-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-10-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. `free -h` C. `chmod` D. `pwd` +8. Which Windows directory contains 64-bit applications on a 64-bit system? + +A. `C:\Program Files (x86)` +B. `C:\Windows\SysWOW64` +C. `C:\Program Files` +D. `C:\Users\Public` + +9. A user reports an app works on their home PC but not the work PC that runs Windows Home. The app requires domain features. What is the issue? + +A. Insufficient disk space +B. The app requires Windows Pro or higher +C. The driver is outdated +D. The app needs a dedicated graphics card + +10. An application requires .NET Framework 4.8. The PC does not have it. Where can a technician enable this on Windows? + +A. Device Manager +B. Programs and Features > Turn Windows features on or off +C. Quick format +D. BitLocker + +11. Which installation method allows multiple PCs to be set up at once over the network from a master image? + +A. Manual USB install per machine +B. PXE boot with network deployment +C. Physical media insert per device +D. OEM recovery partition only + +12. Which type of software license is tied to a single machine and typically sold through hardware OEM channels? + +A. Site license +B. Subscription license +C. OEM license +D. Open-source license + +13. A technician wants to run a Linux virtual machine inside Windows. Which Windows feature enables this? + +A. BitLocker +B. EFS +C. Hyper-V +D. UAC + +14. Which runtime environment is required to run most Java-based applications? + +A. .NET Framework +B. Visual C++ Redistributable +C. JRE (Java Runtime Environment) +D. Cygwin + +15. Why should business impact be considered before upgrading a critical application? + +A. It changes the MAC address +B. It disables DNS automatically +C. The upgrade may affect workflows, require downtime, or break dependent processes +D. It always removes user accounts + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. D @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. `pwd` 5. D 6. C 7. B +8. C +9. B +10. B +11. B +12. C +13. C +14. C +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/OS-11-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-11-quiz.md index dfff1f0..722bc1a 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-11-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-11-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. RAID controller firmware C. Thermal paste management D. Email +8. Which cloud service model provides email, calendar, and productivity apps as a service? + +A. IaaS +B. SaaS +C. PaaS +D. NaaS + +9. A remote employee's Microsoft 365 account is disabled. Which platform should an admin use to re-enable it? + +A. Local Control Panel +B. Microsoft 365 Admin Center +C. Device Manager +D. Local Users and Groups + +10. Which cloud feature ensures that changes to a document on a phone automatically appear on a laptop? + +A. Local caching only +B. Real-time sync across devices +C. Offline-only storage +D. Drive defragmentation + +11. A user deletes a file from OneDrive. How long is it typically recoverable from the cloud Recycle Bin? + +A. Permanently deleted immediately +B. Up to 30–93 days depending on license and settings +C. Only until the next sync +D. Until the browser cache is cleared + +12. Which term describes using the same login credential to access multiple cloud services? + +A. Local authentication +B. Domain-only login +C. Identity federation or SSO +D. APIPA assignment + +13. A user works offline on a document normally stored in OneDrive. What happens when they reconnect? + +A. The file is deleted from cloud +B. The local changes are synced to the cloud +C. The file reverts to the cloud version automatically +D. The sync is skipped unless manually triggered + +14. Which setting prevents a laptop from sleeping while a Teams or Zoom meeting is in progress? + +A. Screen refresh rate +B. Display calibration +C. Power Options > Sleep settings +D. DNS server setting + +15. Which cloud service model hosts the underlying infrastructure (VMs, storage, networking) that businesses build on? + +A. SaaS +B. PaaS +C. IaaS +D. DaaS + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. A @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Email 5. C 6. B 7. D +8. B +9. B +10. B +11. B +12. C +13. B +14. C +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/OS-2-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-2-quiz.md index 070f52e..1e01cd3 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-2-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-2-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. `shutdown /r /o /t 0` C. `sfc /scannow` D. `ipconfig /release` +6. A technician needs to boot a PC from USB to run Windows setup. What must be configured first? + +A. Asset tag +B. Boot order in BIOS/UEFI +C. Screensaver timer +D. Display brightness + +7. Which Windows recovery option restores the system to factory state while keeping personal files? + +A. System Image Recovery +B. Reset This PC — Keep My Files +C. Disk Cleanup +D. Secure Boot + +8. A boot sector error appears after a Windows update. Which command sequence is most appropriate? + +A. `sfc /scannow` then `chkdsk` +B. `ipconfig /release` then `/renew` +C. `bootrec /fixmbr` then `bootrec /rebuildbcd` +D. `diskpart` then `format` + +9. What is the purpose of WinRE (Windows Recovery Environment)? + +A. Manage print queues +B. Provide recovery tools when Windows cannot start normally +C. Update device drivers remotely +D. Configure screen resolution + +10. A technician needs to perform a clean install but has no DVD drive. What is the best alternative boot method? + +A. Plug in an external monitor +B. Boot from a bootable USB flash drive +C. Use Bluetooth pairing +D. Enable Secure Boot without media + +11. Which Windows recovery option completely removes all personal files and reinstalls Windows? + +A. System Restore +B. Startup Repair +C. Reset This PC — Remove Everything +D. System Information + +12. After a failed Windows update, a technician wants to remove the update that caused the issue. Which tool should they use? + +A. Device Manager +B. Windows Update history in Settings +C. Resource Monitor +D. Task Scheduler + +13. What does a system image backup contain? + +A. Only user documents +B. Only the OS installation files +C. A complete snapshot of the entire drive including OS, apps, and data +D. Only registry hives + +14. A PC boots to a black screen with "BOOTMGR is missing." What should the technician try first? + +A. Disable Windows Firewall +B. Run Disk Cleanup +C. Boot from Windows media and run Startup Repair +D. Change the screensaver + +15. Which Advanced Startup Options tool rolls back to a previous restore point? + +A. Command Prompt +B. System Restore +C. Task Manager +D. Memory Diagnostic + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. C @@ -49,4 +119,14 @@ D. `ipconfig /release` 3. D 4. C 5. B +6. B +7. B +8. C +9. B +10. B +11. C +12. B +13. C +14. C +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/OS-3-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-3-quiz.md index 1099111..a95e163 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-3-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-3-quiz.md @@ -42,6 +42,76 @@ B. Device Manager C. System Information D. Task Scheduler +6. A technician suspects a process is consuming too much RAM. Which tool shows processes with memory usage in real time? + +A. Disk Management +B. Event Viewer +C. Task Manager +D. Local Security Policy + +7. A technician needs to create a local user account on a Windows workstation. Which tool should they use? + +A. Task Scheduler +B. Performance Monitor +C. Local Users and Groups +D. Device Manager + +8. Which tool generates data collector sets and long-term performance logs? + +A. Resource Monitor +B. Performance Monitor +C. Task Manager +D. Event Viewer + +9. Which tool shows drive health and partition layout graphically and can assign drive letters? + +A. Services +B. System Configuration +C. Disk Management +D. Local Security Policy + +10. Which tool is used to disable unnecessary startup services and programs to improve boot time diagnostically? + +A. Device Manager +B. System Configuration (msconfig) +C. Credential Manager +D. Disk Management + +11. A technician needs to stop and restart a stuck background service. Which tool should they use? + +A. Task Scheduler +B. Performance Monitor +C. Services (services.msc) +D. Event Viewer + +12. Which utility provides a single consolidated view of system hardware including BIOS version and processor details? + +A. Resource Monitor +B. Disk Management +C. System Information (msinfo32) +D. Local Security Policy + +13. A technician wants to set a minimum password length policy on a standalone workstation. Which tool should they use? + +A. Task Manager +B. Event Viewer +C. Local Security Policy +D. Disk Management + +14. Which Event Viewer log records events from Windows OS components and services? + +A. Application +B. System +C. Security +D. Setup + +15. A technician wants to schedule a disk cleanup script to run every Sunday at 2 AM. Which tool is best? + +A. Disk Management +B. Device Manager +C. Resource Monitor +D. Task Scheduler + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -49,4 +119,14 @@ D. Task Scheduler 3. C 4. B 5. D +6. C +7. C +8. B +9. C +10. B +11. C +12. C +13. C +14. B +15. D diff --git a/quizzes/OS-4-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-4-quiz.md index 2655057..0ac4355 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-4-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-4-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. `/?` C. `127.0.0.1` D. `C:` +8. Which command checks and repairs disk errors on a drive? + +A. `sfc /scannow` +B. `netstat -ano` +C. `chkdsk /f` +D. `gpresult /r` + +9. A technician wants to see the path network packets take to a remote host. Which command is best? + +A. `hostname` +B. `whoami` +C. `tracert` +D. `net use` + +10. Which command maps a network drive to a drive letter? + +A. `diskpart` +B. `net use Z: \\server\share` +C. `gpupdate` +D. `sfc` + +11. A PC needs an immediate shutdown. Which command achieves this? + +A. `shutdown /r /t 0` +B. `shutdown /s /t 0` +C. `gpupdate /force` +D. `sfc /scannow` + +12. Which command repairs the Windows boot record when a system cannot start? + +A. `chkdsk /r` +B. `diskpart` +C. `bootrec /fixmbr` +D. `netstat -ano` + +13. What does `DISM /Online /Cleanup-Image /RestoreHealth` do? + +A. Formats the system drive +B. Repairs the Windows component store using Windows Update +C. Forces a Group Policy refresh +D. Stops all running services + +14. Which command terminates a running process by its process ID? + +A. `net stop` +B. `gpresult /r` +C. `taskkill /PID /F` +D. `sfc /scannow` + +15. Which command releases the current DHCP lease on a Windows machine? + +A. `ipconfig /renew` +B. `ipconfig /flushdns` +C. `ipconfig /release` +D. `ipconfig /all` + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. D @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. `C:` 5. A 6. C 7. B +8. C +9. C +10. B +11. B +12. C +13. B +14. C +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/OS-5-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-5-quiz.md index 2ad4e3f..98f7bf1 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-5-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-5-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. `ping 127.0.0.1` C. `gpupdate /force` D. `df -T` +8. Which file system is commonly used for USB drives that need to work on both Windows and macOS? + +A. NTFS +B. ext4 +C. exFAT +D. ReFS + +9. Which Windows file system is designed for resilience and data integrity in server and RAID environments? + +A. FAT16 +B. ReFS +C. HFS+ +D. APFS + +10. A technician is formatting a USB drive for use on Linux only. Which file system is the best choice? + +A. NTFS +B. FAT32 +C. exFAT +D. ext4 + +11. Which Linux command shows the kernel version and architecture of the running system? + +A. `chmod` +B. `uname -a` +C. `df -T` +D. `apt` + +12. ChromeOS is based on which kernel? + +A. Windows NT +B. Darwin +C. Linux +D. FreeBSD + +13. Which mobile OS uses APK files as its application package format? + +A. iOS +B. Android +C. ChromeOS +D. macOS + +14. What is the main advantage of NTFS over FAT32 for Windows system drives? + +A. Lower storage overhead +B. Compatibility with older DOS systems +C. Support for file permissions, encryption, and files larger than 4 GB +D. Faster write speeds on all hardware + +15. Which file system does iOS use internally? + +A. NTFS +B. ext4 +C. FAT32 +D. APFS + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. C @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. `df -T` 5. C 6. B 7. D +8. C +9. B +10. D +11. B +12. C +13. B +14. C +15. D diff --git a/quizzes/OS-6-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-6-quiz.md index 59f31a3..743b761 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-6-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-6-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. `chkdsk` C. `ms-settings:` D. `whoami` +8. Which command opens the System Properties dialog (includes computer name and domain info)? + +A. `appwiz.cpl` +B. `sysdm.cpl` +C. `ncpa.cpl` +D. `firewall.cpl` + +9. Which command opens Windows Firewall with Advanced Security? + +A. `firewall.cpl` +B. `wf.msc` +C. `ncpa.cpl` +D. `eventvwr.msc` + +10. A technician needs to add the Telnet Client feature. Which Control Panel section is most appropriate? + +A. Programs and Features > Turn Windows features on or off +B. Device Manager +C. Power Options +D. File Explorer Options + +11. Which command opens the advanced User Accounts dialog? + +A. `control userpasswords2` +B. `ncpa.cpl` +C. `appwiz.cpl` +D. `ms-settings:` + +12. A user reports that file extensions are not shown in File Explorer. Which setting controls this? + +A. Power Options +B. Device Manager +C. File Explorer Options > View > Hide extensions +D. Internet Options + +13. Which command opens the classic Control Panel? + +A. `ms-settings:` +B. `eventvwr.msc` +C. `control` +D. `diskmgmt.msc` + +14. Which command opens Event Viewer? + +A. `perfmon.msc` +B. `services.msc` +C. `diskmgmt.msc` +D. `eventvwr.msc` + +15. A technician wants to configure Windows to require a password after the screensaver activates. Where is this setting found? + +A. Device Manager +B. Personalization > Lock Screen or Screen Saver settings +C. Network Connections +D. Programs and Features + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. `whoami` 5. B 6. D 7. C +8. B +9. B +10. A +11. A +12. C +13. C +14. D +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/OS-7-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-7-quiz.md index e871575..0efde27 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-7-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-7-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Metered connection C. Disk quota D. Fast Startup +8. Which command releases and then renews a DHCP lease? + +A. `ipconfig /all` then `netstat` +B. `ipconfig /release` then `ipconfig /renew` +C. `nslookup` then `tracert` +D. `net use` then `hostname` + +9. A user can reach internal resources but cannot browse the internet. What is the most likely cause? + +A. Incorrect subnet mask +B. Default gateway is missing or incorrect +C. DNS is set correctly +D. APIPA address assigned + +10. Which command clears the local DNS resolver cache? + +A. `nslookup /flush` +B. `ipconfig /flushdns` +C. `netstat -flush` +D. `gpupdate /force` + +11. A Windows workstation needs to use a static IP. Where is this configured? + +A. Device Manager +B. Programs and Features +C. Network adapter properties > TCP/IPv4 +D. Windows Update + +12. Which network profile automatically applies the most restrictive Windows Firewall rules? + +A. Domain +B. Private +C. Workgroup +D. Public + +13. A user cannot reach a network printer by name but can reach it by IP address. Which service is most likely at fault? + +A. DHCP +B. DNS +C. NTFS +D. BitLocker + +14. Which command tests basic network connectivity to another host? + +A. `netstat` +B. `ping` +C. `gpresult` +D. `taskkill` + +15. A shared folder should allow all domain users to read but only IT staff to write. Which feature combination handles this? + +A. DNS server settings +B. DHCP scope +C. Metered connection +D. Share permissions combined with NTFS permissions + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. D @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Fast Startup 5. D 6. C 7. B +8. B +9. B +10. B +11. C +12. D +13. B +14. B +15. D diff --git a/quizzes/OS-8-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-8-quiz.md index d67d53c..bf7b458 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-8-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-8-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Dock C. Continuity D. Disk Utility +8. Which macOS tool is equivalent to Windows Task Manager for viewing and killing processes? + +A. Time Machine +B. Disk Utility +C. Activity Monitor +D. Keychain Access + +9. Which macOS command-line tool lists running processes? + +A. `gpupdate` +B. `tasklist` +C. `ps aux` +D. `ipconfig` + +10. Which macOS feature allows you to view and manage multiple virtual desktops? + +A. Spotlight +B. Mission Control / Spaces +C. Keychain +D. FileVault + +11. Which macOS keyboard shortcut opens Spotlight search? + +A. `Command-Option-Escape` +B. `Command-Space` +C. `Command-Tab` +D. `Control-Alt-Delete` + +12. A macOS application will not launch because it is from an unidentified developer. Which setting controls this? + +A. Time Machine +B. FileVault +C. Privacy & Security > Allow apps from +D. Disk Utility + +13. Which macOS command shows the current network configuration including IP and DNS? + +A. `sfc /scannow` +B. `ipconfig /all` +C. `ifconfig` or `networksetup` +D. `gpresult /r` + +14. A macOS user wants to check whether a remote host is reachable from Terminal. Which command should they use? + +A. `tracert` +B. `ipconfig` +C. `ping` +D. `chkdsk` + +15. Which macOS feature allows sharing clipboard content, files, and handoff between nearby Apple devices? + +A. Spotlight +B. FileVault +C. Continuity +D. Disk Utility + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. A @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Disk Utility 5. C 6. B 7. D +8. C +9. C +10. B +11. B +12. C +13. C +14. C +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/OS-9-quiz.md b/quizzes/OS-9-quiz.md index 496d198..a0eeee5 100644 --- a/quizzes/OS-9-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/OS-9-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. `mount` C. `sudo` D. `find` +8. Which command shows the current working directory in Linux? + +A. `ls` +B. `cd` +C. `pwd` +D. `cat` + +9. Which command changes file ownership in Linux? + +A. `chmod` +B. `chown` +C. `grep` +D. `find` + +10. Which Linux command installs a package on Red Hat/CentOS-based systems? + +A. `apt install` +B. `brew install` +C. `dnf install` or `yum install` +D. `dpkg --install` + +11. Which command searches for text inside files in Linux? + +A. `man` +B. `df` +C. `grep` +D. `mount` + +12. Which file in Linux defines where file systems are mounted at boot? + +A. `/etc/passwd` +B. `/etc/shadow` +C. `/etc/hosts` +D. `/etc/fstab` + +13. Which Linux command shows disk usage for a specific directory? + +A. `df -h` +B. `du -sh /path` +C. `top` +D. `man` + +14. Which permission string means owner can read/write/execute, group can read/execute, others can read only? + +A. `rwxrwxrwx` +B. `rwxr-xr--` +C. `rw-rw-rw-` +D. `r--r--r--` + +15. Which command shows who is currently logged in to a Linux system? + +A. `ps aux` +B. `df` +C. `w` or `who` +D. `grep` + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. C @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. `find` 5. B 6. D 7. A +8. C +9. B +10. C +11. C +12. D +13. B +14. B +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-1-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-1-quiz.md index 8a3b82a..283a0fa 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-1-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-1-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. APFS C. SSO D. exFAT +8. Which access control model assigns permissions based on the user's role in the organization? + +A. DAC (Discretionary) +B. RBAC (Role-Based) +C. TOTP +D. DLP + +9. Which physical security control prevents someone from following an authorized person through a secure door? + +A. CCTV +B. Mantrap or access control vestibule +C. Badge color coding +D. SSID broadcast + +10. Which type of control aims to fix a vulnerability or issue after it is detected? + +A. Preventive +B. Detective +C. Corrective +D. Deterrent + +11. Which authentication factor type is a smartcard? + +A. Something you know +B. Something you are +C. Something you have +D. Something you do + +12. A company requires two of the following to log in: PIN, fingerprint, and a phone app. This is an example of: + +A. Single-factor authentication +B. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) +C. Zero-trust bypass +D. Just-in-time SSID + +13. Which security control type defines policies and procedures rather than technical tools? + +A. Physical +B. Technical +C. Administrative +D. Detective + +14. Which physical control uses a second locked door to trap and verify a person before granting full access? + +A. Bollard +B. Badge scanner +C. Mantrap +D. CCTV + +15. A user authenticates with a fingerprint. Which factor type is this? + +A. Something you know +B. Something you have +C. Something you are +D. Something you do + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. exFAT 5. D 6. A 7. C +8. B +9. B +10. C +11. C +12. B +13. C +14. C +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-10-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-10-quiz.md index 6dfcbdd..eb3d276 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-10-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-10-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. It is not strong security because the SSID can still be discovered C. It prevents all malware infections D. It physically protects the router +8. Which SOHO feature assigns local IP addresses to connected devices automatically? + +A. DNS +B. DHCP +C. NAT +D. UPnP + +9. A small business wants to prevent employees from accidentally accessing certain websites. Which router feature helps? + +A. DHCP reservation +B. UPnP +C. Content filtering or URL filtering +D. SSID broadcast disable + +10. Which router setting maps a specific inbound port to an internal server so external users can reach it? + +A. DHCP reservation +B. Port forwarding +C. Guest network isolation +D. Firewall default deny + +11. A business needs each printer to always receive the same IP address from DHCP. Which feature enables this? + +A. Port forwarding +B. DHCP reservation by MAC address +C. WPA2-Enterprise +D. DMZ hosting + +12. Which network zone hosts public-facing servers while keeping them separate from the internal LAN? + +A. Guest network +B. VLAN only +C. DMZ (demilitarized zone) +D. Private cloud + +13. A home router's remote management interface is exposed to the internet. What should be done? + +A. Enable WEP to protect it +B. Disable remote management or restrict it to trusted IPs only +C. Enable UPnP for better access +D. Broadcast the SSID + +14. Which security practice ensures that wireless clients cannot communicate with each other on a guest network? + +A. Client isolation or AP isolation +B. DHCP reservation +C. Port forwarding +D. SSID broadcast + +15. What should be done if a SOHO router reaches end-of-life and the vendor stops releasing security patches? + +A. Continue using it without concern +B. Replace it with a supported model +C. Disable DHCP only +D. Enable WEP as a workaround + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. D @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. It physically protects the router 5. A 6. C 7. B +8. B +9. C +10. B +11. B +12. C +13. B +14. A +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-11-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-11-quiz.md index d8c41e7..d94c23e 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-11-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-11-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Quick format C. Screen brightness D. Proxy +8. What does HTTPS ensure when visiting a website? + +A. The website is free of malware +B. The connection between the browser and server is encrypted +C. The website is in the trusted vendors list +D. The download is automatically scanned + +9. Why are browser updates important from a security perspective? + +A. They remove the need for passwords +B. They make certificate warnings safe to ignore +C. They physically secure the router +D. They can patch security vulnerabilities in the browser + +10. A user visits a legitimate news site and gets a malware pop-up. What is the likely cause? + +A. The user's screen is too bright +B. Malvertising — malicious ads served through ad networks on legitimate sites +C. The browser needs a new printer driver +D. The SSL certificate expired + +11. Why is it risky to save passwords in a browser on a shared computer? + +A. It slows the browser +B. Other users or malware could access saved credentials +C. It disables HTTPS +D. It requires a GPU + +12. Which browser feature warns users when they attempt to visit a known phishing or malware site? + +A. Download manager +B. Safe Browsing or SmartScreen filter +C. Private mode +D. Tab management + +13. A user's browser homepage changed and unknown toolbars appeared after installing freeware. What most likely happened? + +A. A scheduled update ran +B. A browser hijacker was installed bundled with the freeware +C. The DNS server changed +D. The user's account was moved to a domain + +14. What is the safest action before clicking a link in a suspicious email? + +A. Click it to check if it loads correctly +B. Hover over the link to preview the URL and verify it matches the expected destination +C. Forward the email to verify with others +D. Save the attachment first + +15. What is the purpose of certificate pinning in security-conscious applications? + +A. Speed up TLS handshakes +B. Prevent man-in-the-middle attacks by accepting only a specific certificate +C. Allow self-signed certificates everywhere +D. Replace HTTPS with HTTP for speed + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. C @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Proxy 5. C 6. B 7. D +8. B +9. D +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. B +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-2-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-2-quiz.md index 2337480..9d8be82 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-2-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-2-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Microsoft account C. Domain account D. Guest-only account +8. BitLocker prompts for a recovery key at boot. What likely changed? + +A. The screensaver activated +B. Hardware or firmware changes detected by TPM +C. The monitor refresh rate changed +D. Windows Update failed + +9. Which Windows command shows the current user's security group memberships? + +A. `hostname` +B. `winver` +C. `whoami /groups` +D. `sfc /scannow` + +10. Which Windows feature provides a software firewall between the network and the OS? + +A. EFS +B. Windows Defender Firewall +C. UAC +D. BitLocker + +11. Which built-in account has the highest level of privileges on a standalone Windows machine? + +A. Standard user +B. Guest +C. Power user +D. Local Administrator + +12. Which Windows Security feature scans files in real time to detect malware? + +A. BitLocker +B. EFS +C. UAC +D. Microsoft Defender real-time protection + +13. A file on an NTFS drive is encrypted with EFS. Who can open it? + +A. Anyone on the local network +B. Only the user account that encrypted it (and authorized recovery agents) +C. All administrators automatically +D. Any user with read share permission + +14. A user needs to share a folder so everyone can read but only IT can write. Which permission type controls write access on an NTFS volume? + +A. DNS settings +B. Power profile +C. NTFS permissions +D. Wi-Fi SSID + +15. Which Windows feature manages encryption keys and can be backed up to Active Directory? + +A. EFS only +B. UAC +C. BitLocker with TPM and recovery key backup +D. Windows Firewall + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Guest-only account 5. B 6. D 7. C +8. B +9. C +10. B +11. D +12. D +13. B +14. C +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-3-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-3-quiz.md index b70584d..3aab974 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-3-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-3-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. TACACS+ C. BitLocker D. EFS +8. Which wireless standard is the most current and provides the strongest security? + +A. WEP +B. WPA +C. WPA2 +D. WPA3 + +9. What is the purpose of MAC address filtering on a wireless network? + +A. Encrypt all data in transit +B. Restrict connections to devices whose MAC addresses are on an approved list +C. Replace the need for a Wi-Fi password +D. Increase wireless range + +10. Why is MAC address filtering alone considered a weak security measure? + +A. It slows down the access point +B. MAC addresses can be spoofed by attackers +C. It requires WEP +D. It disables SSID broadcast + +11. What does WPA2-Enterprise require that WPA2-Personal does not? + +A. A pre-shared key (password) +B. An authentication server (RADIUS) +C. WEP as a fallback +D. Kerberos tickets only + +12. A hotel guest connects to "FREE_HOTEL_WIFI" which is not an official network. What attack is this? + +A. Dictionary attack +B. Evil twin +C. Kerberos overflow +D. Supply chain attack + +13. Which wireless configuration reduces the risk of rogue device connections on a corporate network? + +A. Hiding the SSID only +B. 802.1X authentication with certificates +C. MAC filtering only +D. Disabling all encryption + +14. A company wants to ensure wireless clients each receive individual encryption keys rather than a shared key. Which mode achieves this? + +A. WPA2-Personal +B. WEP +C. WPA2-Enterprise +D. Open + +15. Which protocol provides encrypted authentication for RADIUS-based wireless and is commonly used with EAP? + +A. TKIP +B. WEP +C. 802.1X +D. APIPA + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. D @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. EFS 5. D 6. C 7. B +8. D +9. B +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. C +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-4-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-4-quiz.md index 8f3b0e0..d0c039c 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-4-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-4-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Change the desktop wallpaper C. Convert the disk to FAT32 D. Reimage or reinstall the OS from clean media/image +8. Which malware type spreads by attaching itself to legitimate programs and activates when the host program runs? + +A. Trojan +B. Worm +C. Virus +D. Cryptominer + +9. Which malware type spreads across a network without needing a host file? + +A. Virus +B. Adware +C. Worm +D. PUP + +10. A user downloads what appears to be a legitimate game but it installs a backdoor. What malware type is this? + +A. Rootkit +B. Trojan +C. Ransomware +D. Keylogger + +11. Which tool monitors and filters network traffic to detect and block known malicious signatures? + +A. EDR +B. UPS +C. IDS/IPS +D. Time Machine + +12. An application came bundled with freeware and now shows unwanted ads. What category is this? + +A. Rootkit +B. Ransomware +C. Worm +D. PUP (Potentially Unwanted Program) + +13. What is the primary goal of spyware? + +A. Encrypt files for ransom +B. Collect user information and transmit it without consent +C. Replicate across the network +D. Display unwanted advertisements + +14. A user receives an email with an attachment that installs a keylogger when opened. What attack category is this? + +A. DDoS +B. SQL injection +C. Phishing with a malware payload +D. Ransomware encryption only + +15. Which type of malware specifically targets the boot sector of a hard drive? + +A. Trojan +B. Boot sector virus +C. Adware +D. Worm + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. A @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Reimage or reinstall the OS from clean media/image 5. C 6. B 7. D +8. C +9. C +10. B +11. C +12. D +13. B +14. C +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-5-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-5-quiz.md index 92cfeba..36c83bf 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-5-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-5-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Plaintext storage C. Tailgating D. SAML +8. A technician receives a call from someone claiming to be IT support asking for their password. What attack type is this? + +A. Phishing +B. Vishing +C. SQL injection +D. Tailgating + +9. An attacker follows an employee through a secure door without scanning their badge. What is this called? + +A. Shoulder surfing +B. Tailgating +C. Whaling +D. Smishing + +10. An attacker watches a user enter their PIN at an ATM by standing nearby. What attack is this? + +A. Tailgating +B. Vishing +C. Shoulder surfing +D. Evil twin + +11. An attacker searches through discarded printed documents to find sensitive information. What is this called? + +A. Dumpster diving +B. Smishing +C. Watering hole attack +D. Shoulder surfing + +12. Which attack floods a login page with many different password guesses automatically? + +A. Shoulder surfing +B. Vishing +C. Brute force attack +D. Tailgating + +13. An email appears to come from the CEO asking the CFO to wire money immediately. This targeted attack is called: + +A. Smishing +B. Vishing +C. Whaling or Business Email Compromise (BEC) +D. Watering hole + +14. An attacker compromises a popular developer tool website knowing IT professionals visit it. What attack type is this? + +A. Vishing +B. Watering hole attack +C. Tailgating +D. Smishing + +15. What is the best general defense against social engineering attacks? + +A. Disable all email +B. Use only WEP +C. Security awareness training +D. Remove all firewalls + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. C @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. SAML 5. B 6. D 7. A +8. B +9. B +10. C +11. A +12. C +13. C +14. B +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-6-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-6-quiz.md index 0d49853..f6e7773 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-6-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-6-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Delete all backups C. Educate the end user D. Turn off antivirus +8. What is the correct order of the first three steps in the CompTIA malware removal process? + +A. Scan → Quarantine → Educate +B. Reimage → Update → Educate +C. Identify and research → Quarantine → Disable System Restore +D. Update signatures → Scan → Report + +9. An infected system is connected to the corporate network. What is the immediate risk if not quarantined? + +A. The system will run out of disk space +B. The malware could spread to other systems on the network +C. System Restore will fail +D. Antivirus signatures will not update + +10. A user was tricked into running a malicious file from a phishing email. Which step in the removal process addresses preventing this from happening again? + +A. Quarantine +B. Disable System Restore +C. Educate the end user +D. Run a full scan + +11. Which scanning tool is recommended for a second-opinion scan during malware removal? + +A. A dedicated on-demand scanner from a different vendor than the primary AV +B. The same antivirus already installed +C. System Restore +D. Task Manager only + +12. After malware removal, a technician checks that the system is fully patched. What is the reason? + +A. Patches change file permissions automatically +B. Vulnerabilities may have been exploited or left open and need to be closed +C. Updates reset System Restore +D. Patches disable antivirus + +13. A technician runs a full scan and the system appears clean. What should be done before returning the machine to the user? + +A. Delete all backups +B. Skip re-enabling System Protection +C. Verify system functionality, re-enable System Protection, and create a restore point +D. Immediately reimage + +14. Why is System Restore disabled before running remediation scans? + +A. System Restore blocks antivirus tools from running +B. Restore points may contain copies of the malware that could re-infect after cleanup +C. System Restore uses extra CPU during scans +D. It forces the network adapter to disable + +15. After completing all cleanup and verification steps, what is the very last thing to do? + +A. Disable the firewall permanently +B. Delete all backups +C. Educate the end user on how to avoid reinfection +D. Turn off antivirus + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Turn off antivirus 5. D 6. A 7. C +8. C +9. B +10. C +11. A +12. B +13. C +14. B +15. C diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-7-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-7-quiz.md index 1403876..6221d34 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-7-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-7-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Confirm business/system impact C. Disable antivirus permanently D. Convert the drive to FAT32 +8. Why is it important to keep OS and application patches up to date? + +A. Patches improve screen resolution +B. Patches close known security vulnerabilities +C. Patches disable antivirus +D. Patches remove user accounts + +9. Which configuration reduces the attack surface by requiring a PIN before the screen is accessible? + +A. Disable screen lock +B. Enable AutoRun +C. Screen lock with automatic timeout +D. Lower display brightness + +10. What is the purpose of host-based firewall rules on a workstation? + +A. Control which apps can accept inbound network connections +B. Manage driver installation +C. Remove the need for EFS +D. Disable BitLocker + +11. A company requires 12-character minimum passwords with complexity. Where is this configured on a standalone Windows machine? + +A. Device Manager +B. Windows Update +C. Local Security Policy +D. File Explorer Options + +12. What does the principle of least privilege mean for local workstation accounts? + +A. All users should have Administrator rights +B. Users should receive only the permissions required for their job function +C. Guest accounts should be enabled for everyone +D. Shared accounts are preferred + +13. Which hardening technique removes unnecessary software (games, demos, trial apps) from a workstation? + +A. Degaussing +B. Account lockout policy +C. Uninstalling unnecessary applications +D. Enabling AutoRun + +14. Which setting limits how many failed login attempts are allowed before an account is temporarily locked? + +A. Account lockout threshold +B. Password complexity +C. EFS recovery agent +D. BitLocker PIN length + +15. A technician is deploying 50 identical workstations. Which approach best ensures consistent hardening? + +A. Configure each manually +B. Use a hardened image or Group Policy baseline +C. Ask each user to configure their own settings +D. Enable AutoPlay on all devices + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. D @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Convert the drive to FAT32 5. A 6. C 7. B +8. B +9. C +10. A +11. C +12. B +13. C +14. A +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-8-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-8-quiz.md index 8c28f47..ccd864d 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-8-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-8-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Using a PIN C. Backing up the device D. Installing apps from unknown third-party sources +8. What is the purpose of requiring a PIN or biometric to unlock a mobile device? + +A. Increase screen brightness +B. Prevent unauthorized access if the device is lost or stolen +C. Extend battery life +D. Enable file synchronization + +9. Which mobile feature allows an organization to separate personal and work data on a BYOD device? + +A. Remote wipe of the entire device +B. NFC disable +C. Containerization or work profile +D. Auto-brightness + +10. Why is disabling Bluetooth when not in use a security best practice on mobile devices? + +A. It improves battery life and reduces the attack surface for Bluetooth-based attacks +B. It enables GPS tracking +C. It forces app updates +D. It activates MDM + +11. A company policy requires that corporate email be wiped from a lost phone without erasing personal data. Which MDM capability enables this? + +A. Full device wipe +B. Selective wipe +C. Remote disable of Bluetooth +D. App store restriction + +12. A user's phone was factory reset by an unauthorized person, but they cannot activate it without the original account credentials. Which feature prevents unauthorized reuse? + +A. Screen lock +B. Activation lock (iCloud Lock or Factory Reset Protection on Android) +C. NFC +D. Bluetooth pairing + +13. Why should corporate email require device compliance (minimum OS version, PIN set) before syncing? + +A. It increases storage +B. It ensures devices meet baseline security requirements before accessing corporate data +C. It disables screen rotation +D. It removes biometric options + +14. What is a risk of connecting a mobile device to an untrusted USB charging port? + +A. Slower charging only +B. Juice jacking — malicious software or data exfiltration via USB +C. Screen damage +D. Battery overcharge + +15. Which mobile OS feature alerts users when an app requests access to location, camera, or microphone? + +A. Screen brightness control +B. App permission prompts +C. DHCP lease renewal +D. Bluetooth scan + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. C @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Installing apps from unknown third-party sources 5. C 6. B 7. D +8. B +9. C +10. A +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. B +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/SEC-9-quiz.md b/quizzes/SEC-9-quiz.md index 0b8187a..9241584 100644 --- a/quizzes/SEC-9-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/SEC-9-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. It physically breaks the disk C. The data may still be recoverable from storage D. It creates an audit certificate +8. Which secure erase method uses the drive's own firmware to wipe all storage cells and is especially effective on SSDs? + +A. Degaussing +B. ATA Secure Erase or manufacturer secure erase +C. Quick format +D. Shredding + +9. A company has end-of-life SSDs with customer data that must be physically destroyed. Which method is most appropriate? + +A. Degaussing +B. Quick format +C. Shredding or disintegration +D. Multiple overwrites only + +10. What is the difference between clearing and purging in data sanitization? + +A. They are identical +B. Clearing uses logical overwrites (for reuse in same environment); purging uses stronger methods that prevent lab recovery +C. Clearing physically destroys the media +D. Purging only applies to SSDs + +11. Why can't a standard magnet typically degauss a modern hard drive? + +A. Modern drives use optical storage +B. The magnetic field required is much stronger than a typical magnet can produce +C. Degaussing only works on SSDs +D. Modern drives use APFS + +12. A technician formats a drive and reinstalls Windows. A customer asks if their data is completely gone. What is the correct answer? + +A. Yes, completely and permanently +B. No, much of the data may still be recoverable with forensic tools unless securely wiped +C. Only if BitLocker was enabled +D. Only if the drive is an SSD + +13. Which NIST publication provides guidelines for media sanitization? + +A. NIST SP 800-88 +B. NIST SP 800-53 +C. ISO 27001 +D. PCI DSS + +14. Which data destruction method is best when a drive must be erased but cannot be removed from a device? + +A. Remote wipe via MDM or encrypted erase +B. Quick format only +C. Closing the disk management window +D. Disabling the drive letter + +15. A hard drive shows signs of failure. Before disposal, what should be done to protect data? + +A. Quick format and donate +B. Perform a full secure wipe or physically destroy the drive +C. Reformat with FAT32 +D. Delete the user profile folders + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. It creates an audit certificate 5. B 6. D 7. C +8. B +9. C +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. A +14. A +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/TRB-1-quiz.md b/quizzes/TRB-1-quiz.md index 7db4660..677cd3c 100644 --- a/quizzes/TRB-1-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/TRB-1-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. WordPad C. Task Manager D. Snipping Tool +8. A blue screen of death (BSOD) appears frequently. What is the first troubleshooting step? + +A. Replace the monitor +B. Note the stop code and check Event Viewer or Reliability Monitor +C. Reinstall the browser +D. Disable all services + +9. A Windows PC boots but shows 100% disk usage and no programs open. What is a likely cause? + +A. The screensaver is active +B. A failing hard drive, malware, or a runaway process +C. The DNS server is down +D. BitLocker is encrypting the drive + +10. Which command rebuilds the boot configuration database when Windows cannot find boot files? + +A. `sfc /scannow` +B. `gpupdate /force` +C. `bootrec /rebuildbcd` +D. `chkdsk /f` + +11. A user reports their profile settings reset on every login. What is the likely cause? + +A. The mouse sensitivity changed +B. A corrupt or temporary user profile +C. DHCP lease expired +D. Low screen brightness + +12. Windows Update fails repeatedly. What should a technician do first? + +A. Disable antivirus permanently +B. Delete all user profiles +C. Check Event Viewer for error codes and run the Windows Update troubleshooter +D. Reinstall the browser + +13. A computer runs fine for 20 minutes then shuts down unexpectedly. What should be checked? + +A. Browser cache +B. Thermal management — check CPU temps, clean dust from fans and heatsink +C. User account settings +D. File system type + +14. An application crashes consistently on launch. What are reasonable first steps? + +A. Reimage immediately +B. Roll back a recent update, check Event Viewer for the error, and test compatibility +C. Replace the keyboard +D. Disable DNS + +15. A technician needs to identify which DLL caused a BSOD. Which tool analyzes the memory dump file? + +A. Task Manager +B. WinDbg or BlueScreenView +C. Disk Cleanup +D. Registry Editor + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,4 +121,12 @@ D. Snipping Tool 5. B 6. A 7. C +8. B +9. B +10. C +11. B +12. C +13. B +14. B +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/TRB-2-quiz.md b/quizzes/TRB-2-quiz.md index 36aeee5..759fa97 100644 --- a/quizzes/TRB-2-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/TRB-2-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Root the device C. Disable all updates forever D. Try low-risk fixes and verify backup status +8. A user cannot connect to Wi-Fi on their phone even though the password is correct. What should be tried first? + +A. Replace the battery +B. Forget the network and reconnect +C. Disable MDM +D. Factory reset immediately + +9. A mobile app shows a "No internet connection" error while other apps work fine. What should be checked? + +A. App-specific network permissions +B. Replace the SIM card +C. Disable Bluetooth +D. Reformat the storage + +10. A phone's touchscreen does not respond to touch in a small area. What is the likely cause? + +A. Low battery +B. Screen rotation lock +C. Physical damage or screen digitizer failure +D. DNS failure + +11. An app freezes but the rest of the phone works. What is the best first step? + +A. Factory reset +B. Force close the app and reopen it +C. Update the OS immediately +D. Remove the battery + +12. Notifications are not appearing for an app. What should be checked? + +A. Screen brightness +B. App notification permissions and Do Not Disturb settings +C. Storage capacity only +D. SIM card PIN + +13. A mobile device is very slow after an OS update. What is a reasonable first step? + +A. Factory reset immediately without backup +B. Restart the device; if still slow, check storage and running apps +C. Downgrade the OS using a third-party tool +D. Disable all apps permanently + +14. A user reports their phone keeps dropping calls in the same location. What is likely? + +A. The microphone is damaged +B. Poor cellular signal strength in that area +C. The screen is cracked +D. Low Wi-Fi bandwidth + +15. An app requires iOS 17 but the phone runs iOS 15 and cannot be updated. What should be communicated to the user? + +A. Force install the app anyway +B. The device does not meet the app's minimum OS requirements +C. Jailbreak the device to bypass the requirement +D. The app will install but features will be limited + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,3 +121,11 @@ D. Try low-risk fixes and verify backup status 5. B 6. A 7. D +8. B +9. A +10. C +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. B +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/TRB-3-quiz.md b/quizzes/TRB-3-quiz.md index 6c661c7..a6d505c 100644 --- a/quizzes/TRB-3-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/TRB-3-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. Unwanted software, malicious site notifications, or malicious app behavior C. Printer spooler failure D. Low toner +8. A user's phone is sending texts they never wrote. What should be suspected? + +A. Low storage +B. Malware or unauthorized account access +C. Bluetooth pairing issue +D. Screen rotation lock + +9. Which precaution should a technician take before removing malware from a managed mobile device? + +A. Delete all personal photos +B. Disable corporate email +C. Follow MDM policy and escalate if the device is corporate-owned +D. Immediately factory reset without documentation + +10. An iPhone user reports unknown apps appeared after a jailbreak. What is the likely cause? + +A. iCloud sync added them +B. Unofficial app sources enabled by the jailbreak installed unauthorized software +C. The App Store pushed them automatically +D. MDM deployed them + +11. Which mobile behavior is most likely to indicate a phishing attempt? + +A. A calendar reminder for a meeting +B. A text or email with a link asking to verify credentials immediately +C. An app notification for a sale +D. A low-battery warning + +12. A user installs a "free VPN" from an unknown developer. What security risk does this introduce? + +A. Faster internet +B. The VPN app may intercept and log all network traffic +C. Better encryption than a paid VPN +D. Reduced data usage + +13. Which Android setting should be disabled to reduce the risk of malware from unofficial sources? + +A. Disable "Install from unknown sources" and use only Google Play +B. Enable "Install from unknown sources" +C. Enable developer mode +D. Root the device for full control + +14. A corporate phone receives persistent pop-up messages from an unknown app. What is the best immediate action? + +A. Click the pop-ups to see where they lead +B. Uninstall suspicious apps and scan the device; escalate per policy +C. Factory reset without reporting +D. Disable all notifications + +15. Which mobile security threat allows attackers to intercept device communications via a rogue cellular tower? + +A. Juice jacking +B. IMSI catcher or SS7 attack +C. Tailgating +D. Shoulder surfing + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,3 +121,11 @@ D. Low toner 5. C 6. D 7. B +8. B +9. C +10. B +11. B +12. B +13. A +14. B +15. B diff --git a/quizzes/TRB-4-quiz.md b/quizzes/TRB-4-quiz.md index 0bb825a..2bcb0ea 100644 --- a/quizzes/TRB-4-quiz.md +++ b/quizzes/TRB-4-quiz.md @@ -56,6 +56,62 @@ B. High screen resolution C. Too many folders on the desktop only D. Malware damage, system corruption, or network blocking +8. A computer is running slowly and internet bandwidth is lower than normal. What security issue should be suspected? + +A. The keyboard is sticky +B. Screen saver is running +C. A monitor driver needs updating +D. Malware consuming resources or a botnet using the bandwidth + +9. A new administrator account appeared that no one created. What should be suspected? + +A. Windows Update created it automatically +B. Malware or unauthorized access created a backdoor account +C. Group Policy created a guest account +D. A printer driver added the account + +10. A user's email contacts report receiving spam from the user's address. Which compromise is most likely? + +A. The user's email account credentials were stolen or their account was compromised +B. The printer driver failed +C. The screen saver caused the issue +D. BitLocker locked the drive + +11. Which symptom suggests a rootkit may be present? + +A. Normal Task Manager showing low CPU usage +B. Files hidden from normal OS tools that are visible with bootable forensic tools +C. Printer not responding +D. Screensaver changing on its own + +12. A computer keeps connecting to unknown IP addresses in the background. What security issue does this suggest? + +A. DHCP is working correctly +B. A botnet or command-and-control malware infection +C. Normal Windows Update behavior +D. Disk defragmentation in progress + +13. Unwanted software reinstalls itself after removal. What does this suggest? + +A. The user keeps reinstalling it +B. A persistence mechanism such as a scheduled task, registry entry, or rootkit +C. The screensaver triggered it +D. The drive is NTFS + +14. A user's desktop icons were replaced with unknown shortcuts. What should be suspected? + +A. Windows theme changed automatically +B. Malware or unwanted software modified desktop files +C. A printer driver updated +D. The screensaver changed the layout + +15. After confirming a malware infection, what is the correct next step before removing anything? + +A. Run Disk Cleanup +B. Quarantine the system and document findings per the malware removal process +C. Change the desktop background +D. Update the graphics driver + ## Answer Key For Instructor 1. B @@ -65,3 +121,11 @@ D. Malware damage, system corruption, or network blocking 5. B 6. C 7. D +8. D +9. B +10. A +11. B +12. B +13. B +14. B +15. B